Resource-Based View, Competitive Strategy & Strategic Alliances | MCQ

Resource-Based View, Competitive Strategy & Strategic Alliances | MCQ

1. Which of the following is a characteristic of inimitable resources?
A) Easily available in the market
B) Difficult to copy by competitors
C) Can be bought instantly
D) Does not contribute to competitive advantage
Answer: B) Difficult to copy by competitors

2. What is the primary test of inimitability?
A) How long a resource lasts
B) How difficult it is to copy
C) How many competitors use it
D) How much profit it generates
Answer: B) How difficult it is to copy

3. Which of the following is NOT a type of inimitability?
A) Path dependency
B) Casual ambiguity
C) Economic deterrence
D) Market saturation
Answer: D) Market saturation

4. Physical uniqueness in RBV refers to resources that:
A) Cannot be easily replicated
B) Are widely available
C) Have no impact on competition
D) Are intangible in nature
Answer: A) Cannot be easily replicated

5. What is an example of path dependency as a source of competitive advantage?
A) A company that developed unique expertise over decades
B) A company that buys a widely available raw material
C) A startup entering a new market
D) A company switching to a cost leadership strategy
Answer: A) A company that developed unique expertise over decades

6. Economic deterrence occurs when:
A) A company makes a large investment that discourages competitors
B) A firm outsources its operations to a third party
C) Competitors easily copy a firm’s technology
D) A company reduces its costs to gain market share
Answer: A) A company makes a large investment that discourages competitors

7. Which of the following tests assesses whether a firm retains the profits generated by a resource?
A) Test of durability
B) Test of appropriability
C) Test of inimitability
D) Test of substitutability
Answer: B) Test of appropriability

8. What is the key focus of the Resource-Based View (RBV)?
A) Market competition
B) External industry factors
C) Internal firm resources and capabilities
D) Short-term cost reduction
Answer: C) Internal firm resources and capabilities

9. According to the RBV, a firm achieves competitive advantage if its resources are:
A) Valuable, rare, inimitable, and non-substitutable (VRIN)
B) Expensive, flexible, scalable, and standardized
C) Large, well-marketed, and easily accessible
D) Imitable, non-valuable, and widely available
Answer: A) Valuable, rare, inimitable, and non-substitutable (VRIN)

10. Which resource characteristic is most critical for long-term sustainable competitive advantage?
A) Substitutable
B) Imitable
C) Inimitable
D) Short-lived
Answer: C) Inimitable


11. What are the four grand corporate strategic alternatives?
A) Stability, Expansion, Retrenchment, Combination
B) Cost leadership, Differentiation, Focus, Innovation
C) Vertical integration, Horizontal integration, Diversification, Divestment
D) None of the above
Answer: A) Stability, Expansion, Retrenchment, Combination

12. Which strategy focuses on expanding the company’s activities?
A) Retrenchment strategy
B) Stability strategy
C) Growth strategy
D) Pause/proceed with caution strategy
Answer: C) Growth strategy

13. Which of the following is an example of retrenchment strategy?
A) Mergers and acquisitions
B) Selling off a business unit
C) Expanding into international markets
D) Increasing R&D investment
Answer: B) Selling off a business unit

14. A company following an inside-out strategy focuses on:
A) Adapting to external market trends
B) Leveraging its internal strengths to create strategy
C) Copying competitors' strategies
D) Ignoring internal capabilities
Answer: B) Leveraging its internal strengths to create strategy

15. Which framework analyzes the competitive forces in an industry?
A) PEST Analysis
B) SWOT Analysis
C) Porter’s Five Forces
D) Ansoff Matrix
Answer: C) Porter’s Five Forces


16. What is a strategic alliance?
A) A merger between two companies
B) A temporary agreement between two firms for mutual benefit
C) A government regulation on business partnerships
D) A hostile takeover of one firm by another
Answer: B) A temporary agreement between two firms for mutual benefit

17. Which of the following is NOT a type of strategic alliance?
A) Joint venture
B) Licensing agreement
C) Cost leadership strategy
D) Equity partnership
Answer: C) Cost leadership strategy

18. What is one key benefit of a strategic alliance?
A) It eliminates competition completely
B) It allows partners to leverage each other’s strengths
C) It guarantees increased market share
D) It is always legally binding
Answer: B) It allows partners to leverage each other’s strengths

19. Which company is known for its fully integrated global value chain?
A) Apple
B) ECCO A/S
C) Tesla
D) Google
Answer: B) ECCO A/S

20. What is ECCO’s approach to value chain management?
A) Full control from raw materials to finished products
B) Outsourcing all production to third parties
C) Avoiding international markets
D) Relying solely on branding without manufacturing
Answer: A) Full control from raw materials to finished products


21. What is the primary goal of competitive strategy?
A) To increase product variety
B) To outperform rivals and gain a competitive advantage
C) To reduce workforce size
D) To increase advertising spend
Answer: B) To outperform rivals and gain a competitive advantage

22. Which of the following is a key element of Porter’s Generic Strategies?
A) Horizontal integration
B) Cost leadership
C) Environmental scanning
D) Diversification
Answer: B) Cost leadership

23. The "Differentiation" strategy focuses on:
A) Offering the lowest price in the market
B) Making products unique and valued by customers
C) Mass production at low cost
D) Competing based solely on operational efficiency
Answer: B) Making products unique and valued by customers

24. Which strategy is best for firms operating in a niche market?
A) Cost Leadership
B) Focus Strategy
C) Vertical Integration
D) Retrenchment
Answer: B) Focus Strategy

25. A company that minimizes costs across its value chain to gain a market advantage is using:
A) Differentiation strategy
B) Focus strategy
C) Cost leadership strategy
D) Retrenchment strategy
Answer: C) Cost leadership strategy


26. Which of the following is NOT a reason companies form strategic alliances?
A) To share resources and expertise
B) To eliminate all competitors
C) To enter new markets
D) To reduce costs through synergies
Answer: B) To eliminate all competitors

27. What is a joint venture?
A) A company fully acquiring another
B) A long-term agreement between competitors
C) A separate entity formed by two or more firms for a shared objective
D) A temporary distribution contract
Answer: C) A separate entity formed by two or more firms for a shared objective

28. What is an example of a successful strategic alliance?
A) Apple acquiring Beats Electronics
B) Starbucks partnering with Pepsi for bottled coffee distribution
C) Google launching Android
D) Amazon competing with Walmart
Answer: B) Starbucks partnering with Pepsi for bottled coffee distribution

29. One of the biggest challenges in strategic alliances is:
A) Increased competition
B) Lack of trust and coordination between partners
C) Legal ownership disputes
D) High initial investment
Answer: B) Lack of trust and coordination between partners

30. What is a licensing agreement in strategic alliances?
A) One company grants another the rights to use its technology or brand
B) A short-term business contract
C) A full merger between two companies
D) A hostile takeover strategy
Answer: A) One company grants another the rights to use its technology or brand


31. Who developed the concept of the value chain?
A) Henry Mintzberg
B) Michael Porter
C) Clayton Christensen
D) Peter Drucker
Answer: B) Michael Porter

32. The value chain consists of which two major types of activities?
A) Primary and Support activities
B) Internal and External activities
C) Tangible and Intangible activities
D) Customer and Supplier activities
Answer: A) Primary and Support activities

33. Which of the following is a primary activity in Porter’s Value Chain?
A) HR Management
B) Procurement
C) Inbound Logistics
D) Technology Development
Answer: C) Inbound Logistics

34. Which support activity in the value chain deals with recruiting, training, and retaining employees?
A) Operations
B) Human Resource Management
C) Firm Infrastructure
D) Procurement
Answer: B) Human Resource Management

35. What is the purpose of value chain analysis?
A) To determine the best pricing strategy
B) To understand how a company creates value and gains competitive advantage
C) To analyze competitors’ financial performance
D) To create a global expansion strategy
Answer: B) To understand how a company creates value and gains competitive advantage


36. What is backward integration?
A) Acquiring suppliers to control the supply chain
B) Expanding into new markets
C) Merging with competitors
D) Franchising a business model
Answer: A) Acquiring suppliers to control the supply chain

37. Which corporate strategy involves acquiring businesses that are unrelated to the firm’s core operations?
A) Vertical integration
B) Horizontal integration
C) Conglomerate diversification
D) Market penetration
Answer: C) Conglomerate diversification

38. Which business model generates revenue through subscription-based access to services?
A) Transactional model
B) Subscription model
C) Freemium model
D) Advertising model
Answer: B) Subscription model

39. A company following the franchising strategy:
A) Owns all its stores and manages operations centrally
B) Expands by licensing its brand and business model to franchisees
C) Focuses only on online sales
D) Operates under a government contract
Answer: B) Expands by licensing its brand and business model to franchisees

40. A blue ocean strategy focuses on:
A) Competing in highly saturated markets
B) Creating new market space and reducing competition
C) Price wars with competitors
D) Cost-cutting across all operations
Answer: B) Creating new market space and reducing competition


41. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a strategic decision?
A) Long-term focus
B) Affects the entire organization
C) Easily reversible
D) Requires significant resource allocation
Answer: C) Easily reversible

42. Strategic decisions are usually made by:
A) Frontline employees
B) Middle management
C) Top executives and board of directors
D) Customers and stakeholders
Answer: C) Top executives and board of directors

43. The Ansoff Matrix is used to:
A) Develop pricing strategies
B) Identify growth opportunities
C) Optimize operational efficiency
D) Analyze competitive forces
Answer: B) Identify growth opportunities

44. In the Ansoff Matrix, market penetration focuses on:
A) Selling new products to new markets
B) Increasing sales of existing products in existing markets
C) Developing new products for existing customers
D) Expanding into unrelated industries
Answer: B) Increasing sales of existing products in existing markets

45. When a company enters a new market with a completely new product, it is following which Ansoff strategy?
A) Market penetration
B) Product development
C) Market development
D) Diversification
Answer: D) Diversification


46. Which of the following best defines a business model?
A) A company’s advertising strategy
B) The way a company creates, delivers, and captures value
C) The financial statements of a company
D) A company’s brand positioning strategy
Answer: B) The way a company creates, delivers, and captures value

47. The "Freemium" business model involves:
A) Offering free services with premium paid features
B) Providing all services free of cost
C) Charging a single upfront payment
D) Selling physical products only
Answer: A) Offering free services with premium paid features

48. A company that continuously improves its business model through experimentation follows:
A) The traditional approach
B) Business model innovation
C) Financial re-engineering
D) Static strategy formulation
Answer: B) Business model innovation

49. What is a "disruptive innovation"?
A) A minor change in existing processes
B) A technology or business model that creates a new market and displaces established competitors
C) A competitor’s marketing campaign
D) A new financial regulation affecting businesses
Answer: B) A technology or business model that creates a new market and displaces established competitors

50. Which company is an example of disruptive innovation?
A) Apple’s launch of the iPhone
B) Toyota increasing car production
C) McDonald’s introducing a new burger
D) Samsung launching a new TV model
Answer: A) Apple’s launch of the iPhone


51. Strategic implementation is primarily concerned with:
A) Defining business goals
B) Translating strategies into actions
C) Analyzing competitors
D) Conducting financial audits
Answer: B) Translating strategies into actions

52. Which of the following is a key challenge in strategy implementation?
A) Lack of external competition
B) Resistance to change from employees
C) Over-dependence on government policies
D) Avoiding innovation
Answer: B) Resistance to change from employees

53. Balanced Scorecard is a tool used for:
A) Financial forecasting
B) Measuring organizational performance across multiple dimensions
C) Conducting mergers and acquisitions
D) Cost-cutting strategies
Answer: B) Measuring organizational performance across multiple dimensions

54. The four key perspectives of the Balanced Scorecard include:
A) Financial, Customer, Internal Processes, and Learning & Growth
B) Product, Price, Promotion, and Place
C) Operations, Marketing, HR, and Sales
D) Quality, Efficiency, Costs, and Revenues
Answer: A) Financial, Customer, Internal Processes, and Learning & Growth

55. Which leadership style is most effective for strategy implementation?
A) Autocratic leadership
B) Transformational leadership
C) Passive leadership
D) Bureaucratic leadership
Answer: B) Transformational leadership


56. What is the primary goal of mergers and acquisitions (M&A)?
A) To improve organizational efficiency and market reach
B) To reduce employee workload
C) To increase advertising spend
D) To eliminate all competitors
Answer: A) To improve organizational efficiency and market reach

57. Which type of merger occurs when two companies in the same industry and at the same stage of production join together?
A) Vertical merger
B) Horizontal merger
C) Conglomerate merger
D) Reverse merger
Answer: B) Horizontal merger

58. A company acquiring its supplier is an example of:
A) Vertical integration
B) Horizontal integration
C) Market penetration
D) Conglomerate diversification
Answer: A) Vertical integration

59. What is due diligence in the M&A process?
A) A company’s employee evaluation process
B) A financial and operational investigation before an acquisition
C) A marketing campaign strategy
D) A supply chain restructuring method
Answer: B) A financial and operational investigation before an acquisition

60. Which of the following is a common reason for merger failure?
A) Overestimation of synergies
B) Lack of customer demand
C) Government subsidies
D) Increased employee salaries
Answer: A) Overestimation of synergies


61. Blue Ocean Strategy encourages companies to:
A) Enter highly competitive markets
B) Create new, uncontested market space
C) Follow traditional industry norms
D) Focus only on cost reduction
Answer: B) Create new, uncontested market space

62. In Blue Ocean Strategy, companies focus on:
A) Making competition irrelevant
B) Competing aggressively in price wars
C) Outsourcing all business processes
D) Avoiding innovation
Answer: A) Making competition irrelevant

63. Sustainable competitive advantage is achieved when:
A) A company’s unique position is difficult for competitors to imitate
B) A company cuts costs aggressively
C) A company invests only in short-term strategies
D) A company changes its strategy frequently
Answer: A) A company’s unique position is difficult for competitors to imitate

64. Which of the following is NOT a source of sustainable competitive advantage?
A) Strong brand reputation
B) Unique intellectual property
C) Easily imitable technology
D) Superior customer relationships
Answer: C) Easily imitable technology

65. First-mover advantage refers to:
A) The benefit a company gains by being the first to enter a market
B) A company’s ability to copy competitors
C) Late-stage market entry
D) Competing on cost alone
Answer: A) The benefit a company gains by being the first to enter a market


66. Corporate strategy primarily focuses on:
A) Operational efficiency
B) Managing multiple business units and defining overall direction
C) Product marketing strategies
D) Employee performance appraisals
Answer: B) Managing multiple business units and defining overall direction

67. Which of the following is an example of a corporate-level strategy?
A) Choosing a pricing model for a product
B) Deciding to enter a new industry
C) Selecting a promotional campaign
D) Hiring a new project manager
Answer: B) Deciding to enter a new industry

68. Which of the following is NOT a corporate-level strategy?
A) Diversification
B) Market penetration
C) Operational restructuring
D) Divestment
Answer: C) Operational restructuring

69. Which type of corporate strategy involves selling off parts of the business that are no longer profitable or strategic?
A) Expansion
B) Diversification
C) Divestment
D) Market penetration
Answer: C) Divestment

70. The primary role of a strategic leader is to:
A) Handle daily operational tasks
B) Set long-term vision and align organizational goals
C) Focus only on financial reporting
D) Avoid risk-taking
Answer: B) Set long-term vision and align organizational goals


71. Which model describes the three stages of change: Unfreeze, Change, and Refreeze?
A) Kotter’s 8-Step Model
B) Lewin’s Change Management Model
C) McKinsey 7S Framework
D) Porter’s Five Forces
Answer: B) Lewin’s Change Management Model

72. Kotter’s 8-Step Change Model begins with:
A) Generating short-term wins
B) Communicating the vision
C) Establishing a sense of urgency
D) Empowering employees for action
Answer: C) Establishing a sense of urgency

73. What is the primary reason why change initiatives fail?
A) Strong financial performance
B) Resistance from employees
C) Lack of advertising
D) High customer demand
Answer: B) Resistance from employees

74. In change management, "quick wins" refer to:
A) Short-term achievements that build momentum
B) Complete business transformation
C) Cost-cutting measures
D) Eliminating competition
Answer: A) Short-term achievements that build momentum

75. The ADKAR Model focuses on:
A) Organizational restructuring
B) Individual change management
C) Market entry strategies
D) Cost reduction methods
Answer: B) Individual change management


76. Digital transformation primarily focuses on:
A) Automating all manual tasks
B) Integrating digital technologies to improve business performance
C) Eliminating the need for employees
D) Reducing customer engagement
Answer: B) Integrating digital technologies to improve business performance

77. Which of the following is NOT a driver of digital transformation?
A) Customer expectations
B) Emerging technologies
C) Government regulations
D) Reducing employee salaries
Answer: D) Reducing employee salaries

78. Cloud computing is an essential part of digital transformation because:
A) It increases storage costs
B) It enhances scalability, agility, and data security
C) It reduces internet connectivity
D) It eliminates the need for innovation
Answer: B) It enhances scalability, agility, and data security

79. Artificial Intelligence (AI) contributes to digital transformation by:
A) Improving decision-making and process automation
B) Reducing cybersecurity risks
C) Replacing all human employees
D) Eliminating customer service departments
Answer: A) Improving decision-making and process automation

80. Which technology is the foundation of blockchain-based digital transformation?
A) Centralized database
B) Distributed ledger
C) Traditional server-based networks
D) Cloud computing
Answer: B) Distributed ledger


81. A multinational corporation (MNC) is defined as a company that:
A) Operates only in its home country
B) Has significant operations in multiple countries
C) Focuses only on exporting goods
D) Avoids global expansion
Answer: B) Has significant operations in multiple countries

82. Which strategy involves tailoring products and services to meet the unique needs of different markets?
A) Standardization strategy
B) Localization strategy
C) Cost leadership strategy
D) Vertical integration strategy
Answer: B) Localization strategy

83. A company that follows a global standardization strategy focuses on:
A) Adapting products for each local market
B) Offering the same products worldwide with minimal variation
C) Avoiding international markets
D) Setting up multiple headquarters in every country
Answer: B) Offering the same products worldwide with minimal variation

84. The primary risk of expanding into international markets is:
A) Increased brand recognition
B) Currency fluctuations and political instability
C) Enhanced innovation capabilities
D) More diversified revenue streams
Answer: B) Currency fluctuations and political instability

85. The term "born global" refers to companies that:
A) Expand internationally from the early stages of their business
B) Wait for at least 10 years before entering foreign markets
C) Focus only on domestic growth
D) Rely solely on government funding for expansion
Answer: A) Expand internationally from the early stages of their business


86. The primary goal of mergers and acquisitions (M&A) is to:
A) Increase employee count
B) Enhance market share, synergies, and financial performance
C) Reduce brand value
D) Avoid competitive markets
Answer: B) Enhance market share, synergies, and financial performance

87. A horizontal merger occurs when:
A) Two firms at different stages of the supply chain merge
B) Two firms in the same industry and at the same level merge
C) A company acquires a supplier
D) A company expands internationally
Answer: B) Two firms in the same industry and at the same level merge

88. Which of the following is a key risk associated with M&A?
A) Cultural integration challenges
B) Decreased market expansion
C) Reduction in brand awareness
D) Lower revenue opportunities
Answer: A) Cultural integration challenges

89. A hostile takeover occurs when:
A) A company acquires another with the target’s approval
B) A company aggressively acquires another without the target’s consent
C) Two companies agree to merge voluntarily
D) A government intervenes in a merger
Answer: B) A company aggressively acquires another without the target’s consent

90. The due diligence process in M&A involves:
A) Skipping financial analysis
B) Conducting detailed financial, legal, and operational analysis before acquisition
C) Merging companies without review
D) Ignoring regulatory compliance
Answer: B) Conducting detailed financial, legal, and operational analysis before acquisition


Section 18: Business Ethics & Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR)

91. Business ethics primarily deal with:
A) Increasing sales at any cost
B) Moral principles and values in business decisions
C) Avoiding all risks in business
D) Maximizing profits unethically
Answer: B) Moral principles and values in business decisions

92. Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) refers to:
A) A company’s voluntary commitment to social and environmental causes
B) Mandatory government compliance laws
C) Strategies to increase only shareholder wealth
D) Reducing taxes through unethical means
Answer: A) A company’s voluntary commitment to social and environmental causes

93. Which of the following is an example of ethical business practice?
A) False advertising
B) Transparent reporting of financial data
C) Bribing government officials
D) Exploiting workers in developing countries
Answer: B) Transparent reporting of financial data

94. The triple bottom line in CSR includes:
A) Profit, people, planet
B) Employees, profits, shareholders
C) Marketing, sales, supply chain
D) Revenue, competition, expansion
Answer: A) Profit, people, planet

95. Whistleblowing in a corporate context refers to:
A) Reporting unethical or illegal activities within an organization
B) Supporting unethical practices
C) Spreading false information about competitors
D) Avoiding compliance regulations
Answer: A) Reporting unethical or illegal activities within an organization


96. Corporate governance ensures:
A) Ethical management, transparency, and accountability
B) Elimination of business regulations
C) Maximum control by executives without oversight
D) Complete disregard for shareholder interests
Answer: A) Ethical management, transparency, and accountability

97. The key responsibility of a company’s board of directors is to:
A) Focus only on daily operational tasks
B) Oversee the strategic direction and management of the company
C) Avoid interacting with shareholders
D) Ignore ethical concerns
Answer: B) Oversee the strategic direction and management of the company

98. Risk management involves:
A) Identifying, assessing, and mitigating business risks
B) Eliminating all risks completely
C) Focusing only on financial risks
D) Avoiding risk-related discussions
Answer: A) Identifying, assessing, and mitigating business risks

99. What is an example of financial risk?
A) New competitors entering the market
B) Cybersecurity threats
C) Market fluctuations affecting investments
D) Employee absenteeism
Answer: C) Market fluctuations affecting investments

100. Enterprise Risk Management (ERM) is designed to:
A) Integrate risk management into an organization’s strategy and operations
B) Focus only on compliance risks
C) Ignore operational risks
D) Avoid risk analysis
Answer: A) Integrate risk management into an organization’s strategy and operations


101. Porter’s Five Forces framework helps businesses:
A) Analyze industry competition and external threats
B) Avoid competition altogether
C) Develop only short-term strategies
D) Ignore supplier and buyer influence
Answer: A) Analyze industry competition and external threats

102. A cost leadership strategy focuses on:
A) Offering the lowest prices in the industry while maintaining profitability
B) Charging premium prices for niche markets
C) Avoiding cost reductions
D) Eliminating customer service
Answer: A) Offering the lowest prices in the industry while maintaining profitability

103. Differentiation strategy aims to:
A) Make a product unique and superior in the market
B) Compete solely on price
C) Reduce product quality
D) Follow competitors without innovation
Answer: A) Make a product unique and superior in the market

104. Market penetration strategy involves:
A) Expanding existing products into new markets
B) Selling more of existing products in current markets
C) Developing completely new products
D) Divesting from a market
Answer: B) Selling more of existing products in current markets

105. Which of the following is an example of a blue ocean strategy?
A) Entering a highly competitive market with similar products
B) Creating a new market space with innovative products
C) Copying competitors' strategies
D) Reducing investment in R&D
Answer: B) Creating a new market space with innovative products


106. The primary goal of strategic management is to:
A) Improve operational efficiency only
B) Create and sustain a competitive advantage
C) Focus only on short-term profitability
D) Avoid market expansion
Answer: B) Create and sustain a competitive advantage

107. SWOT analysis helps organizations:
A) Identify strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats
B) Eliminate all competition
C) Focus only on internal weaknesses
D) Avoid external market changes
Answer: A) Identify strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats

108. A company that follows a diversification strategy:
A) Expands into unrelated business areas
B) Focuses on a single product category
C) Avoids entering new markets
D) Reduces investment in R&D
Answer: A) Expands into unrelated business areas

109. The BCG Matrix classifies business units into:
A) Stars, Cash Cows, Question Marks, and Dogs
B) High and Low Risk categories
C) Primary and Secondary businesses
D) Market leaders and followers
Answer: A) Stars, Cash Cows, Question Marks, and Dogs

110. A company’s vision statement primarily focuses on:
A) Short-term financial targets
B) The long-term direction and aspirations of the organization
C) Daily operational tasks
D) Cost-cutting measures
Answer: B) The long-term direction and aspirations of the organization


111. Organizational behavior studies:
A) How individuals and teams behave in organizations
B) Only financial decision-making
C) External economic policies
D) The supply chain process
Answer: A) How individuals and teams behave in organizations

112. Which leadership style focuses on inspiring and motivating employees towards a vision?
A) Transactional leadership
B) Transformational leadership
C) Laissez-faire leadership
D) Autocratic leadership
Answer: B) Transformational leadership

113. Emotional intelligence in leadership refers to:
A) The ability to recognize and manage emotions in oneself and others
B) Ignoring employees’ concerns
C) Making decisions based only on logic
D) Avoiding feedback
Answer: A) The ability to recognize and manage emotions in oneself and others

114. The Hawthorne Effect suggests that:
A) Employees perform better when they feel observed and valued
B) Higher salaries always improve motivation
C) Teamwork reduces productivity
D) Organizational structure does not impact performance
Answer: A) Employees perform better when they feel observed and valued

115. A matrix organizational structure is characterized by:
A) Employees reporting to multiple managers or departments
B) A rigid hierarchy with clear reporting lines
C) Lack of coordination between teams
D) No direct leadership roles
Answer: A) Employees reporting to multiple managers or departments


116. Digital transformation involves:
A) Integrating digital technology into all areas of a business
B) Avoiding technology adoption
C) Reducing innovation in business processes
D) Eliminating customer engagement
Answer: A) Integrating digital technology into all areas of a business

117. Which of the following is an example of disruptive innovation?
A) A new software update for an existing product
B) A low-cost, radically new product that changes an industry
C) Incremental improvements in customer service
D) A minor adjustment in supply chain logistics
Answer: B) A low-cost, radically new product that changes an industry

118. Artificial intelligence (AI) in business helps with:
A) Automating repetitive tasks and improving decision-making
B) Replacing all human jobs
C) Reducing cybersecurity measures
D) Eliminating the need for leadership
Answer: A) Automating repetitive tasks and improving decision-making

119. The Internet of Things (IoT) refers to:
A) Interconnected devices that collect and exchange data
B) A new form of social media
C) Traditional telecommunication networks
D) A cloud computing service
Answer: A) Interconnected devices that collect and exchange data

120. A key risk of digital transformation is:
A) Cybersecurity threats and data privacy issues
B) Increased employee engagement
C) Reduced customer interactions
D) Higher manual paperwork
Answer: A) Cybersecurity threats and data privacy issues


121. Corporate governance refers to:
A) The system of rules, practices, and processes by which a company is directed and controlled
B) The government’s control over private businesses
C) The internal HR policies of a company
D) Only financial reporting practices
Answer: A) The system of rules, practices, and processes by which a company is directed and controlled

122. The primary responsibility of a company’s Board of Directors is to:
A) Manage day-to-day operations
B) Ensure strategic direction and protect shareholder interests
C) Focus only on financial profits
D) Avoid stakeholder engagement
Answer: B) Ensure strategic direction and protect shareholder interests

123. Which principle is NOT a fundamental part of corporate governance?
A) Transparency
B) Accountability
C) Insider trading
D) Ethical behavior
Answer: C) Insider trading

124. Business ethics primarily deals with:
A) Moral principles guiding business decisions
B) Maximizing short-term profits
C) Avoiding legal compliance
D) Ignoring social responsibility
Answer: A) Moral principles guiding business decisions

125. ESG (Environmental, Social, and Governance) factors are used to:
A) Assess a company's ethical and sustainability performance
B) Increase operational inefficiencies
C) Avoid regulatory compliance
D) Reduce innovation
Answer: A) Assess a company's ethical and sustainability performance


126. The primary objective of financial management is to:
A) Maximize shareholder wealth
B) Minimize taxes only
C) Ignore financial risks
D) Focus only on short-term profits
Answer: A) Maximize shareholder wealth

127. The balance sheet of a company shows:
A) Financial position at a specific point in time
B) Revenues and expenses over a period
C) Cash inflows and outflows
D) Marketing expenses only
Answer: A) Financial position at a specific point in time

128. The cost of capital is:
A) The return required by investors for providing capital
B) The cost of raw materials
C) The amount spent on marketing
D) The profit margin of a company
Answer: A) The return required by investors for providing capital

129. Working capital management focuses on:
A) Managing short-term assets and liabilities
B) Long-term investment decisions
C) Only increasing sales
D) Avoiding cash flow analysis
Answer: A) Managing short-term assets and liabilities

130. The price-to-earnings (P/E) ratio helps investors:
A) Evaluate a company’s stock price relative to its earnings
B) Determine the number of employees in a company
C) Measure a company’s market share
D) Analyze supply chain efficiency
Answer: A) Evaluate a company’s stock price relative to its earnings


131. The 4Ps of marketing stand for:
A) Product, Price, Place, Promotion
B) People, Process, Performance, Profit
C) Price, Product, Partnership, Packaging
D) Promotion, Publicity, People, Planning
Answer: A) Product, Price, Place, Promotion

132. Market segmentation helps businesses:
A) Identify and target specific customer groups
B) Offer the same product to everyone
C) Ignore consumer preferences
D) Increase production costs
Answer: A) Identify and target specific customer groups

133. A brand’s unique selling proposition (USP) is:
A) A distinct feature that differentiates it from competitors
B) The company’s pricing strategy
C) The total advertising budget
D) A generic marketing message
Answer: A) A distinct feature that differentiates it from competitors

134. In digital marketing, SEO (Search Engine Optimization) is used to:
A) Improve a website’s visibility on search engines
B) Reduce digital advertising costs
C) Create new physical store locations
D) Eliminate competition
Answer: A) Improve a website’s visibility on search engines

135. Customer Relationship Management (CRM) systems help businesses:
A) Manage interactions with customers and improve relationships
B) Reduce the importance of customer service
C) Focus only on internal operations
D) Decrease brand engagement
Answer: A) Manage interactions with customers and improve relationships


136. Operations management focuses on:
A) Efficient production and delivery of goods and services
B) Only financial performance
C) Reducing marketing expenses
D) Ignoring process improvements
Answer: A) Efficient production and delivery of goods and services

137. Just-in-Time (JIT) inventory management aims to:
A) Reduce inventory costs by receiving goods only when needed
B) Increase stock levels significantly
C) Delay production processes
D) Increase warehouse expenses
Answer: A) Reduce inventory costs by receiving goods only when needed

138. Total Quality Management (TQM) focuses on:
A) Continuous improvement and customer satisfaction
B) Increasing production time
C) Reducing employee engagement
D) Ignoring quality standards
Answer: A) Continuous improvement and customer satisfaction

139. Six Sigma is a methodology used to:
A) Improve process quality and reduce defects
B) Increase operational complexity
C) Avoid customer feedback
D) Reduce workforce productivity
Answer: A) Improve process quality and reduce defects

140. The bullwhip effect in supply chain management occurs when:
A) Demand fluctuations create inefficiencies across the supply chain
B) Suppliers always have accurate demand forecasts
C) Retailers maintain stable inventory levels
D) Transportation costs remain constant
Answer: A) Demand fluctuations create inefficiencies across the supply chain

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