Six Sigma | DMAIC Lean Six Sigma Green Belt | 100+ MCQ with Answers

Six Sigma | DMAIC Lean Six Sigma Green Belt | 100+ MCQ with Answers


Q1. What is the primary goal of Six Sigma as a management philosophy?
A. Increasing output volume
B. Reducing process variation
C. Expanding product range
D. Enhancing marketing visibility
Answer: B. Reducing process variation


Q2. In Six Sigma, what does the symbol σ (sigma) represent?
A. Process mean
B. Process capability
C. Standard deviation
D. Control limit
Answer: C. Standard deviation


Q3. What is the first step once a process has become stable and in control?
A. Start a Six Sigma project
B. Collect more control charts
C. Train operators
D. Increase cycle time
Answer: A. Start a Six Sigma project


Q4. Which of the following best describes a Non-Value Added (NVA) activity?
A. Adds to customer satisfaction directly
B. Cannot be eliminated due to compliance
C. Creates waste and should be minimized
D. Is a cost of doing business
Answer: C. Creates waste and should be minimized


Q5. In Six Sigma, the variable ‘Y’ represents:
A. Process output
B. Process input
C. Control limit
D. Standard deviation
Answer: A. Process output


Q6. What is the main objective of the Analyze phase?
A. Implementing solutions
B. Validating measurement systems
C. Identifying and validating critical X factors
D. Developing control plans
Answer: C. Identifying and validating critical X factors


Q7. Which tool helps visualize multiple potential causes categorized by factors like Manpower, Machine, Material, etc.?
A. Pareto Chart
B. Fishbone Diagram
C. Control Chart
D. Scatter Plot
Answer: B. Fishbone Diagram


Q8. The “Five Why” technique is primarily used for:
A. Brainstorming new ideas
B. Identifying the fundamental root cause
C. Prioritizing solutions
D. Statistical testing
Answer: B. Identifying the fundamental root cause


Q9. In the Malgudi Hospital case, which factor showed a significant impact on registration time?
A. Printer Type
B. Training and Experience
C. Desk Layout
D. Stationary Supplier
Answer: B. Training and Experience


Q10. The principle behind hypothesis testing in Six Sigma is to:
A. Accept the alternative hypothesis directly
B. Test whether an input (X) significantly affects the output (Y)
C. Confirm all variables affect the process equally
D. Replace subjective reasoning
Answer: B. Test whether an input (X) significantly affects the output (Y)


Q11. What does a low p-value (e.g., < 0.05) in hypothesis testing indicate?
A. The null hypothesis should be accepted
B. The difference is statistically significant
C. The variable has no impact
D. The data lacks normality
Answer: B. The difference is statistically significant


Q12. Which statistical test is best suited to compare means across multiple groups?
A. Chi-Square Test
B. Regression Analysis
C. ANOVA
D. F-Test
Answer: C. ANOVA


Q13. What type of ANOVA was used in the Malgudi Hospital case to test Experience and Training jointly?
A. One Factor ANOVA
B. Two Factor ANOVA with Replication
C. T-Test
D. Correlation Analysis
Answer: B. Two Factor ANOVA with Replication


Q14. In correlation analysis, a value of +1 indicates:
A. No relationship
B. Perfect positive correlation
C. Perfect negative correlation
D. High variability
Answer: B. Perfect positive correlation


Q15. Regression analysis is used to:
A. Identify cause categories
B. Measure control limits
C. Show impact of independent variables on a dependent variable
D. Establish random errors
Answer: C. Show impact of independent variables on a dependent variable


Q16. The Pareto principle is commonly known as:
A. 60–40 rule
B. 20–80 rule
C. 30–70 rule
D. 50–50 rule
Answer: B. 20–80 rule


Q17. What does the box plot visually represent?
A. Process average
B. Data variability and distribution
C. Control limit violations
D. Only outliers
Answer: B. Data variability and distribution


Q18. In the Malgudi Hospital case, which factor had no significant impact on registration time?
A. Printer Type
B. Language Barrier
C. Number of Printers
D. Training
Answer: A. Printer Type


Q19. “Go and See” or Gemba Walk is used to:
A. Audit compliance forms
B. Observe the process in real conditions
C. Compare employee productivity
D. Review documentation
Answer: B. Observe the process in real conditions


Q20. A process that contains both VA (87 sec) and NVA (94 sec) time must prioritize:
A. Increasing VA time
B. Removing NVA time
C. Rebalancing shifts
D. Hiring more staff
Answer: B. Removing NVA time


Q21. Which phase follows Analyze in the DMAIC cycle?
A. Define
B. Improve
C. Measure
D. Control
Answer: B. Improve


Q22. Benchmarking in the Improve phase helps to:
A. Reduce data collection
B. Find proven external solutions
C. Avoid pilot testing
D. Eliminate statistical tests
Answer: B. Find proven external solutions


Q23. The SCAMPER tool is used for:
A. Process validation
B. Idea generation and creative improvement
C. Process control
D. Sigma level calculation
Answer: B. Idea generation and creative improvement


Q24. The acronym SCAMPER stands for Substitute, Combine, Add, Modify, Put to use, Eliminate, and:
A. Reinforce
B. Reassign
C. Reverse
D. Restructure
Answer: C. Reverse


Q25. What is the main function of the Pugh Matrix?
A. Data validation
B. Solution selection and comparison
C. Project scheduling
D. Statistical testing
Answer: B. Solution selection and comparison


Q26. Which of the following is an example of Functional Benchmarking?
A. Comparing two competing hospitals
B. Comparing a hospital’s registration process with airport check-in efficiency
C. Comparing within different hospital branches
D. Comparing billing to pharmacy
Answer: B. Comparing a hospital’s registration process with airport check-in efficiency


Q27. The purpose of pilot implementation is to:
A. Replace full-scale implementation
B. Test solutions on a smaller scale
C. Delay execution
D. Collect training data only
Answer: B. Test solutions on a smaller scale


Q28. In hypothesis testing after improvement, the alternate hypothesis is that:
A. Process time remains same
B. Process time has reduced
C. Process variation increases
D. Process mean is unchanged
Answer: B. Process time has reduced


Q29. FMEA (Failure Mode and Effects Analysis) helps in:
A. Estimating project duration
B. Preventing recurrence of process errors
C. Reducing headcount
D. Enhancing sampling frequency
Answer: B. Preventing recurrence of process errors


Q30. Which of the following is NOT a type of benchmarking?
A. Competitive
B. Functional
C. Financial
D. General
Answer: C. Financial


Q31. The Taguchi Method is primarily used for:
A. Estimating sample size
B. Process redesign with multiple factors
C. Identifying measurement errors
D. Time-series forecasting
Answer: B. Process redesign with multiple factors


Q32. What does an orthogonal array in Design of Experiment (DoE) ensure?
A. Minimal number of experiments with valid results
B. Full factorial coverage
C. Randomized trial selection
D. Sequential sampling
Answer: A. Minimal number of experiments with valid results


Q33. In Six Sigma terms, ‘Critical Xs’ refer to:
A. Inputs with significant impact on output
B. Output defects
C. Process averages
D. Team leaders
Answer: A. Inputs with significant impact on output


Q34. The Malgudi case used which statistical test to confirm impact of number of printers?
A. Regression Analysis
B. Hypothesis Testing
C. Chi-square Test
D. Control Chart
Answer: B. Hypothesis Testing


Q35. The goal of the Improve phase is to:
A. Identify potential Xs
B. Validate root causes
C. Implement solutions and verify impact
D. Measure baseline data
Answer: C. Implement solutions and verify impact


Q36. Which of these best defines a Value Stream Map (VSM)?
A. A visual tool showing the flow of materials and information
B. A financial performance report
C. A project timeline chart
D. A process control plan
Answer: A. A visual tool showing the flow of materials and information


Q37. What is the outcome of value stream analysis in the Malgudi case?
A. More NVA than VA time
B. More VA than NVA time
C. Equal VA and NVA time
D. Only VA time recorded
Answer: A. More NVA than VA time


Q38. When a variable’s P-value is high (>0.05), it means:
A. The variable has a significant impact
B. The null hypothesis is rejected
C. There is no significant impact
D. The process is unstable
Answer: C. There is no significant impact


Q39. Which of the following tools supports prioritization of causes?
A. Pugh Matrix
B. Pareto Analysis
C. Control Chart
D. Regression Line
Answer: B. Pareto Analysis


Q40. What is the next step after identifying significant X factors in Analyze phase?
A. Start Control charts
B. Move to Improve phase
C. Conduct Measure phase again
D. Define new metrics
Answer: B. Move to Improve phase


Q41. Which of the following was a major ergonomic issue in the Malgudi case?
A. Overstaffing
B. Poor counter design
C. Overprinting
D. Lack of doctor availability
Answer: B. Poor counter design


Q42. What does the Control Limit indicate in process behavior charts?
A. Acceptable process variation
B. Specification tolerance
C. Measurement range
D. Mean value
Answer: A. Acceptable process variation


Q43. What statistical tool helps visualize group median and interquartile range?
A. Histogram
B. Box Plot
C. Scatter Plot
D. Line Graph
Answer: B. Box Plot


Q44. Which of these tools can confirm the collective effect of two independent factors?
A. Two-Factor ANOVA
B. Simple Regression
C. Chi-square Test
D. Gage R&R
Answer: A. Two-Factor ANOVA


Q45. A correlation coefficient near zero indicates:
A. Strong relationship
B. No significant linear relationship
C. Perfect dependency
D. Data is non-numeric
Answer: B. No significant linear relationship


Q46. The difference between Hypothesis Testing and ANOVA is that:
A. ANOVA compares more than two groups
B. Hypothesis testing cannot reject H₀
C. ANOVA has no P-value
D. Hypothesis testing is non-statistical
Answer: A. ANOVA compares more than two groups


Q47. A high Sigma Level implies:
A. Higher variation
B. Lower defect rate
C. Higher error probability
D. Process instability
Answer: B. Lower defect rate


Q48. What kind of factor is “Experience” in the Malgudi case?
A. Qualitative Critical X
B. Quantitative Y variable
C. Noise factor
D. Control limit variable
Answer: A. Qualitative Critical X


Q49. Which of the following ensures sustainability of improvements?
A. Root Cause Analysis
B. Control Phase Activities
C. Pilot Testing
D. Measurement Systems Analysis
Answer: B. Control Phase Activities


Q50. The Define–Measure–Analyze–Improve–Control (DMAIC) cycle is intended for:
A. New process design
B. Existing process improvement
C. Product prototyping
D. Market testing
Answer: B. Existing process improvement


Q51. The Control phase in Six Sigma aims to:
A. Identify potential causes
B. Sustain gains achieved in the Improve phase
C. Design new processes
D. Increase sampling size
Answer: B. Sustain gains achieved in the Improve phase


Q52. Which document defines the standard method of process execution post-improvement?
A. Process Charter
B. Standard Operating Procedure (SOP)
C. Data Sheet
D. Fishbone Diagram
Answer: B. Standard Operating Procedure (SOP)


Q53. What tool is commonly used in Control phase to monitor ongoing performance?
A. Control Chart
B. Histogram
C. Cause and Effect Matrix
D. Benchmark Matrix
Answer: A. Control Chart


Q54. Which of these metrics quantifies process capability relative to specification limits?
A. Cp
B. P-Value
C. Mean
D. Sigma
Answer: A. Cp


Q55. What does a Cp value of 1.33 generally indicate?
A. Process is incapable
B. Process is marginally capable
C. Process is capable and acceptable
D. Process needs redesign
Answer: C. Process is capable and acceptable


Q56. Cpk differs from Cp by accounting for:
A. Process cost
B. Process centering
C. Output volume
D. Data distribution type
Answer: B. Process centering


Q57. What does DPMO stand for in Six Sigma metrics?
A. Defects Per Million Opportunities
B. Deviations Per Manufacturing Output
C. Defects Per Mean Output
D. Data Points Measured Objectively
Answer: A. Defects Per Million Opportunities


Q58. A Six Sigma level process produces approximately how many defects per million opportunities?
A. 233
B. 3.4
C. 10
D. 100
Answer: B. 3.4


Q59. What does a higher Sigma level signify?
A. Higher variation
B. Lower defects
C. Lower productivity
D. Higher rework rate
Answer: B. Lower defects


Q60. In the Malgudi case, after implementing improvements, the new sigma level would likely:
A. Decrease
B. Remain constant
C. Increase
D. Become unstable
Answer: C. Increase


Q61. Which Six Sigma role is responsible for overall deployment strategy and alignment with business goals?
A. Black Belt
B. Green Belt
C. Champion
D. Process Owner
Answer: C. Champion


Q62. The Black Belt’s primary responsibility is:
A. Statistical leadership of projects
B. Budget allocation
C. Executive sponsorship
D. Process maintenance
Answer: A. Statistical leadership of projects


Q63. Which role ensures daily process control and sustains the improved process?
A. Green Belt
B. Master Black Belt
C. Process Owner
D. Champion
Answer: C. Process Owner


Q64. The term “Critical to Quality (CTQ)” refers to:
A. Key quality parameters defined by the customer
B. Financial cost drivers
C. Process inputs
D. Statistical averages
Answer: A. Key quality parameters defined by the customer


Q65. Which document tracks project progress, key metrics, and milestones?
A. Project Charter
B. Process Map
C. Control Plan
D. Work Breakdown Sheet
Answer: A. Project Charter


Q66. A Control Plan primarily helps in:
A. Measuring Y variables
B. Standardizing process control and accountability
C. Designing experiments
D. Recording brainstorming outcomes
Answer: B. Standardizing process control and accountability


Q67. Which chart is used to detect assignable causes of variation?
A. Pareto Chart
B. Control Chart
C. Scatter Diagram
D. Box Plot
Answer: B. Control Chart


Q68. In Control Charts, points beyond control limits indicate:
A. Random variation
B. Common cause variation
C. Special cause variation
D. Process stability
Answer: C. Special cause variation


Q69. What is the typical number of standard deviations between control limits in an X-bar chart?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 6
Answer: C. 3


Q70. A process operating at 4 Sigma level has approximately how many defects per million?
A. 3.4
B. 6,210
C. 233
D. 10,000
Answer: B. 6,210


Q71. The Voice of Customer (VOC) is critical during which DMAIC phase?
A. Define
B. Measure
C. Control
D. Improve
Answer: A. Define


Q72. Which measure best represents long-term process capability?
A. Cp
B. Cpk
C. Ppk
D. R-bar
Answer: C. Ppk


Q73. The main difference between Cp and Ppk is:
A. Cp uses short-term data, Ppk uses long-term data
B. Ppk ignores centering
C. Cp adjusts for variation
D. Ppk cannot be used in Control phase
Answer: A. Cp uses short-term data, Ppk uses long-term data


Q74. Measurement System Analysis (MSA) ensures that:
A. Instruments are calibrated
B. Data collection is reliable and accurate
C. Operators are certified
D. Process limits are stable
Answer: B. Data collection is reliable and accurate


Q75. Gage R&R is a key component of which DMAIC phase?
A. Define
B. Measure
C. Analyze
D. Control
Answer: B. Measure


Q76. The concept of COPQ (Cost of Poor Quality) includes:
A. Only external failure cost
B. All costs related to inefficiencies and rework
C. Fixed operating cost
D. Marketing cost
Answer: B. All costs related to inefficiencies and rework


Q77. Which is NOT one of the typical categories in a Fishbone Diagram?
A. Measurement
B. Method
C. Money
D. Machine
Answer: C. Money


Q78. “Eliminate” in the SCAMPER technique suggests:
A. Combining two processes
B. Removing non-value activities
C. Adding new steps
D. Standardizing procedures
Answer: B. Removing non-value activities


Q79. A stable process is characterized by:
A. Constant mean and variation within limits
B. Large shifts over time
C. Random control chart pattern
D. Unpredictable sigma values
Answer: A. Constant mean and variation within limits


Q80. What type of data is most suitable for ANOVA analysis?
A. Nominal
B. Ordinal
C. Interval/Ratio
D. Categorical only
Answer: C. Interval/Ratio


Q81. Control charts are ineffective when:
A. Data are not collected chronologically
B. Sample size is large
C. Variability is low
D. Sigma level is 6
Answer: A. Data are not collected chronologically


Q82. The concept of “Centering” in process control means:
A. Process mean equals the target value
B. Control limits are equal
C. Process is over-specified
D. Operator bias is reduced
Answer: A. Process mean equals the target value


Q83. Process capability is defined as the ratio between:
A. Control limits and tolerance
B. Specification width and process width
C. Mean and standard deviation
D. DPMO and Cp
Answer: B. Specification width and process width


Q84. The Y = f(X) model implies that:
A. Output is a function of input variables
B. Input depends on output variation
C. Both Y and X are constants
D. Sigma affects inputs directly
Answer: A. Output is a function of input variables


Q85. A P-value greater than 0.05 implies:
A. Reject the null hypothesis
B. Accept the null hypothesis
C. Data not significant
D. Model invalid
Answer: B. Accept the null hypothesis


Q86. The F-test in ANOVA measures:
A. Variance ratio among groups
B. Frequency distribution
C. Factor loadings
D. Linear correlation
Answer: A. Variance ratio among groups


Q87. A regression R² value close to 1 indicates:
A. Poor model fit
B. Strong relationship between variables
C. Random correlation
D. Overfitting
Answer: B. Strong relationship between variables


Q88. Which of the following is considered a “Special Cause” of variation?
A. Regular staff shift
B. Power failure during process
C. Natural measurement error
D. Inherent system variation
Answer: B. Power failure during process


Q89. Control phase verification often involves:
A. Running another pilot test
B. Performing post-implementation T-tests
C. Conducting new root cause analysis
D. Brainstorming again
Answer: B. Performing post-implementation T-tests


Q90. A process running at 2 Sigma produces approximately how many defects per million?
A. 308,537
B. 66,807
C. 6,210
D. 3.4
Answer: B. 66,807


Q91. Lean methodology complements Six Sigma primarily by:
A. Reducing waste and cycle time
B. Increasing variance
C. Adding new measurements
D. Eliminating statistical testing
Answer: A. Reducing waste and cycle time


Q92. When should a Control Plan be revised?
A. After every shift
B. When process changes occur
C. Every financial year
D. At the end of training
Answer: B. When process changes occur


Q93. The Sigma level of a process is determined using:
A. Mean shift and DPMO
B. R-bar and Cp
C. Process map and VOC
D. Scatter diagram
Answer: A. Mean shift and DPMO


Q94. A process with Cpk < 1 indicates:
A. Process is capable
B. Process is not meeting specifications
C. Process mean equals target
D. Sigma level > 6
Answer: B. Process is not meeting specifications


Q95. In Six Sigma, “Hidden Factory” refers to:
A. Product warehouse
B. Efforts spent on rework and correction
C. Outsourced suppliers
D. Training center
Answer: B. Efforts spent on rework and correction


Q96. The formula for Cp is:
A. (USL - LSL) / (6σ)
B. (USL + LSL) / σ
C. (6σ) / (USL - LSL)
D. (Mean / σ)
Answer: A. (USL - LSL) / (6σ)


Q97. A control chart showing eight consecutive points on one side of mean indicates:
A. Random variation
B. A process shift
C. Measurement error
D. Lack of sampling
Answer: B. A process shift


Q98. The main purpose of Mistake Proofing (Poka Yoke) is to:
A. Train operators faster
B. Prevent recurrence of human errors
C. Control data variation
D. Eliminate process documentation
Answer: B. Prevent recurrence of human errors


Q99. What kind of data is suitable for control charts like p-chart?
A. Attribute data (defective items)
B. Continuous data (time, weight)
C. Nominal data
D. Ordinal ranking
Answer: A. Attribute data (defective items)


Q100. Which Six Sigma tool helps visualize process flow, bottlenecks, and waiting times?
A. Value Stream Map (VSM)
B. Histogram
C. Fishbone Diagram
D. Box Plot
Answer: A. Value Stream Map (VSM)


Q101. The Improve phase validates solutions through:
A. Full-scale implementation
B. Controlled pilot runs
C. Benchmark audit
D. Brainstorming
Answer: B. Controlled pilot runs


Q102. When both Cp and Cpk are equal, it indicates:
A. Process is centered
B. Process is unstable
C. Measurement errors
D. Sigma shift
Answer: A. Process is centered


Q103. VOC, VOB, and VOP respectively stand for:
A. Voice of Customer, Business, Process
B. Voice of Client, Benchmark, Production
C. Value of Customer, Objective, Plan
D. Variation of Control, Benchmark, Product
Answer: A. Voice of Customer, Business, Process


Q104. The key deliverable at the end of Control phase is:
A. Baseline capability
B. Control Plan and SOP updates
C. Root Cause list
D. Brainstorm report
Answer: B. Control Plan and SOP updates


Q105. The concept of "Sigma Shift" accounts for:
A. Short-term and long-term process variation difference
B. Machine calibration drift
C. Data rounding
D. Supplier delays
Answer: A. Short-term and long-term process variation difference


Q106. A process with a Cpk of 2 corresponds roughly to:
A. 3 Sigma
B. 4 Sigma
C. 5 Sigma
D. 6 Sigma
Answer: D. 6 Sigma


Q107. During the Analyze phase, Pareto analysis is most helpful in:
A. Prioritizing root causes
B. Identifying customers
C. Developing control charts
D. Designing experiments
Answer: A. Prioritizing root causes


Q108. Which Six Sigma phase includes re-collection of data to confirm improved performance?
A. Define
B. Measure
C. Control
D. Analyze
Answer: C. Control


Q109. The Control phase focuses on which type of variation?
A. Special cause
B. Common cause
C. Random
D. Measurement
Answer: B. Common cause


Q110. The final indicator of Six Sigma project success is:
A. Improved Sigma Level with sustained performance
B. Number of meetings conducted
C. Cost of measurement system
D. Staff count reduction
Answer: A. Improved Sigma Level with sustained performance

Six Sigma MCQs, DMAIC MCQ, Lean Six Sigma Green Belt questions, Six Sigma practice test, Cp Cpk Sigma level quiz, hypothesis testing in Six Sigma, ANOVA Six Sigma, Pareto analysis, Malgudi hospital case study, process capability metrics

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