Six Sigma | DMAIC, SPC, Process Capability & Analyze Phase | 100+ MCQ with Answers

Six Sigma | DMAIC, SPC, Process Capability & Analyze Phase | 100+ MCQ with Answers


Q1. Which of the following best describes the main goal of Six Sigma?
A. Eliminating customer requirements
B. Reducing process variation and defects
C. Increasing production speed
D. Expanding product range
Answer: B. Reducing process variation and defects


Q2. What differentiates Six Sigma from traditional quality control?
A. Six Sigma focuses only on inspection
B. Six Sigma aims to eliminate variation itself, not just control it
C. Six Sigma uses only qualitative analysis
D. Six Sigma disregards customer expectations
Answer: B. Six Sigma aims to eliminate variation itself, not just control it


Q3. What are “chance causes” of variation?
A. Assignable causes due to human error
B. External variations like supplier issues
C. Natural or inherent process variation
D. None of the above
Answer: C. Natural or inherent process variation


Q4. What are “assignable causes” in process variation?
A. Variation from expected process behavior
B. Unavoidable randomness
C. Stable long-term performance
D. Customer tolerance limits
Answer: A. Variation from expected process behavior


Q5. What is the primary purpose of process control?
A. Eliminate all natural variation
B. Manage or remove assignable causes
C. Expand product specifications
D. Create marketing differentiation
Answer: B. Manage or remove assignable causes


Q6. What defines whether a product is defective or not in Six Sigma terms?
A. Control limits
B. Specification limits
C. Standard deviation
D. Process average
Answer: B. Specification limits


Q7. Control limits are based on:
A. Customer requirements
B. Process statistical behavior
C. Financial performance
D. Market competition
Answer: B. Process statistical behavior


Q8. Which statement about tolerance and control limits is correct?
A. Tolerance limits are derived from process data
B. Control limits are customer-defined
C. Tolerance limits are customer-defined, control limits are statistically derived
D. Both are interchangeable
Answer: C. Tolerance limits are customer-defined, control limits are statistically derived


Q9. The X-bar chart is primarily used to monitor:
A. Process variation
B. Sample mean of the process
C. Defect rates
D. Process flow
Answer: B. Sample mean of the process


Q10. The R-chart monitors:
A. Process mean
B. Range or dispersion within samples
C. Process capability
D. Control limits
Answer: B. Range or dispersion within samples


Q11. A process is said to be “in control” when:
A. All data points are outside control limits
B. Most points fall on the mean line
C. Data points fall within control limits without non-random patterns
D. Data points are randomly outside limits
Answer: C. Data points fall within control limits without non-random patterns


Q12. What does Six Sigma level correspond to in DPMO terms?
A. 34 defects per 1 million
B. 3.4 defects per 1 million opportunities
C. 1.5 defects per 1 million
D. 0.34 defects per 1 million
Answer: B. 3.4 defects per 1 million opportunities


Q13. The 1.5 sigma shift accounts for:
A. The process being perfectly centered
B. Long-term process drift
C. Machine calibration
D. Customer complaint margin
Answer: B. Long-term process drift


Q14. Process capability ($C_p$) compares:
A. Actual defects with target defects
B. Natural process spread to specification limits
C. Mean shift to control limits
D. Customer complaints to tolerance width
Answer: B. Natural process spread to specification limits


Q15. A $C_p$ of 1.0 indicates what Sigma level?
A. 2 Sigma
B. 3 Sigma
C. 4 Sigma
D. 6 Sigma
Answer: B. 3 Sigma


Q16. A $C_p$ value of 2.0 corresponds to:
A. 6 Sigma
B. 3 Sigma
C. 4 Sigma
D. 2 Sigma
Answer: A. 6 Sigma


Q17. If $C_p = 1.33$, the process is roughly at:
A. 3 Sigma
B. 4 Sigma
C. 5 Sigma
D. 2 Sigma
Answer: B. 4 Sigma


Q18. $C_{pk}$ measures:
A. Process centering and alignment with specifications
B. Process variation only
C. Customer satisfaction level
D. Tolerance design width
Answer: A. Process centering and alignment with specifications


Q19. If $C_p = 1$ but $C_{pk} < 1$, what does it indicate?
A. The process is centered
B. The process mean is shifting
C. Specification limits are too wide
D. The process is overperforming
Answer: B. The process mean is shifting


Q20. A negative $C_{pk}$ implies:
A. High capability
B. The process is centered
C. Process output lies completely outside specifications
D. Variation is zero
Answer: C. Process output lies completely outside specifications


Q21. Which formula calculates process standard deviation from the range chart?
A. $\sigma = R \times D_2$
B. $\sigma = \bar{R}/D_2$
C. $\sigma = \bar{R} + D_2$
D. $\sigma = \bar{R} - D_2$
Answer: B. $\sigma = \bar{R}/D_2$


Q22. Z-value in a normal distribution represents:
A. The mean of the data
B. Standard deviation
C. Distance from the mean in standard deviations
D. Area under the curve
Answer: C. Distance from the mean in standard deviations


Q23. The defect rate (PPM) can be found using:
A. Histogram
B. Normal area beyond specification limits
C. Pareto chart
D. Process mean value
Answer: B. Normal area beyond specification limits


Q24. The Analyze phase focuses on:
A. Validating solutions
B. Identifying and validating root causes
C. Measuring defects
D. Controlling processes
Answer: B. Identifying and validating root causes


Q25. Which tool is used for identifying potential causes (X factors)?
A. Histogram
B. Fishbone diagram
C. P-Chart
D. Scatter Plot
Answer: B. Fishbone diagram


Q26. The Fishbone Diagram is also known as:
A. Pareto Chart
B. Cause-and-Effect Diagram
C. SIPOC Diagram
D. Failure Mode Diagram
Answer: B. Cause-and-Effect Diagram


Q27. Which of the following is NOT a category in a Fishbone diagram?
A. Man
B. Machine
C. Market
D. Material
Answer: C. Market


Q28. The “Five Why” technique is used for:
A. Root cause analysis
B. Process control
C. Customer satisfaction surveys
D. SPC charting
Answer: A. Root cause analysis


Q29. The term “Gemba” or “Ginba” refers to:
A. Virtual process review
B. Going to the actual workplace to observe
C. Data sampling
D. Theoretical modeling
Answer: B. Going to the actual workplace to observe


Q30. Pareto Analysis is based on which principle?
A. 60–40 Rule
B. 20–80 Rule
C. 10–90 Rule
D. 50–50 Rule
Answer: B. 20–80 Rule


Q31. What is the main purpose of a Pareto Chart?
A. Identify all causes equally
B. Focus on trivial many
C. Identify the few causes that contribute to most defects
D. Compare process means
Answer: C. Identify the few causes that contribute to most defects


Q32. Pareto Analysis can be enhanced by including:
A. Cost of Correction
B. Defect count only
C. Mean value
D. Standard deviation
Answer: A. Cost of Correction


Q33. A Box Plot helps visualize:
A. Process control
B. Variation and outliers
C. Customer satisfaction
D. Cost distribution
Answer: B. Variation and outliers


Q34. Histogram is used for:
A. Continuous data distribution
B. Categorical data comparison
C. Cause identification
D. Time series tracking
Answer: A. Continuous data distribution


Q35. Bar chart is used for:
A. Continuous data
B. Categorical data
C. Process control
D. Range data
Answer: B. Categorical data


Q36. Which type of graph shows relationship over time?
A. Line graph
B. Scatter plot
C. Pie chart
D. Histogram
Answer: A. Line graph


Q37. Hypothesis testing helps to:
A. Visually identify variation
B. Statistically validate root causes
C. Calculate mean
D. Create control limits
Answer: B. Statistically validate root causes


Q38. The null hypothesis ($H_0$) states:
A. There is a significant difference
B. There is no significant difference
C. Data is non-random
D. The process is out of control
Answer: B. There is no significant difference


Q39. A P-value less than 0.05 implies:
A. Fail to reject $H_0$
B. Reject $H_0$ (significant impact)
C. Accept $H_0$
D. No effect observed
Answer: B. Reject $H_0$ (significant impact)


Q40. If P-value is high (>0.05):
A. Evidence against $H_0$ is weak
B. Strong evidence against $H_0$
C. Hypothesis invalid
D. Data is abnormal
Answer: A. Evidence against $H_0$ is weak


Q41. Which test compares one sample mean with a population mean?
A. Two-sample T-test
B. One-sample T-test
C. Chi-square
D. ANOVA
Answer: B. One-sample T-test


Q42. Two-sample T-test is used to:
A. Compare more than two group means
B. Compare two independent group means
C. Compare categorical data
D. Validate P-values
Answer: B. Compare two independent group means


Q43. ANOVA is used when comparing:
A. Two means
B. One mean
C. More than two means
D. Variance of one sample
Answer: C. More than two means


Q44. Chi-Square test determines:
A. Relationship between categorical variables
B. Difference between means
C. Correlation strength
D. Confidence interval width
Answer: A. Relationship between categorical variables


Q45. In the Malgudi Hospital case, the CTQ goal was to:
A. Reduce defect cost
B. Reduce registration time below 120 seconds
C. Improve hospital ratings
D. Increase patient volume
Answer: B. Reduce registration time below 120 seconds


Q46. The process average ($\bar{\bar{X}}$) in the baseline was:
A. 120 seconds
B. 179 seconds
C. 60 seconds
D. 90 seconds
Answer: B. 179 seconds


Q47. The $C_p$ value of 0.286 in the Malgudi case indicated:
A. High process capability
B. Very poor process capability
C. Stable process
D. No variation
Answer: B. Very poor process capability


Q48. A negative $C_{pk}$ at Malgudi Hospital implied:
A. Centered process
B. Process mean outside specification
C. High sigma level
D. Excellent performance
Answer: B. Process mean outside specification


Q49. The defect rate in the Malgudi Hospital case was approximately:
A. 3.4 DPMO
B. 800,000 DPMO
C. 34,000 DPMO
D. 1,200 DPMO
Answer: B. 800,000 DPMO


Q50. The next phase after Measure in DMAIC is:
A. Improve
B. Define
C. Analyze
D. Control
Answer: C. Analyze


Q51. In hypothesis testing, Type I error occurs when:
A. You reject a true null hypothesis
B. You accept a false null hypothesis
C. You fail to reject a false null hypothesis
D. You reject an alternative hypothesis
Answer: A. You reject a true null hypothesis


Q52. Type II error occurs when:
A. You reject a false null hypothesis
B. You fail to reject a false null hypothesis
C. You reject a true null hypothesis
D. You misinterpret p-value
Answer: B. You fail to reject a false null hypothesis


Q53. The significance level (α) represents:
A. Probability of making a Type I error
B. Probability of making a Type II error
C. Process mean
D. Sample variance
Answer: A. Probability of making a Type I error


Q54. Confidence level is defined as:
A. 1 + α
B. 1 – α
C. α / 2
D. 1 / α
Answer: B. 1 – α


Q55. A p-value of 0.03 means:
A. 97% probability the null hypothesis is true
B. 3% chance results are due to random variation
C. No statistical difference
D. Data cannot be trusted
Answer: B. 3% chance results are due to random variation


Q56. In hypothesis testing, the decision to reject or fail to reject $H_0$ is based on:
A. Mean value
B. Control chart
C. p-value vs significance level
D. Standard deviation
Answer: C. p-value vs significance level


Q57. The Chi-Square test is most suitable when data is:
A. Continuous
B. Discrete categorical
C. Normally distributed
D. Time-based
Answer: B. Discrete categorical


Q58. In a Chi-Square test, a large χ² statistic means:
A. No association
B. Strong association between variables
C. Small variance
D. Large p-value
Answer: B. Strong association between variables


Q59. ANOVA determines whether:
A. Variances of samples are equal
B. Mean differences exist among groups
C. Data are normally distributed
D. Null hypothesis is always true
Answer: B. Mean differences exist among groups


Q60. A low ANOVA p-value (<0.05) suggests:
A. All group means are equal
B. At least one group mean differs significantly
C. No difference between groups
D. Sample error
Answer: B. At least one group mean differs significantly


Q61. The control chart pattern “two consecutive points near control limits” often signals:
A. Random variation
B. Special cause
C. Normal variation
D. Stable process
Answer: B. Special cause


Q62. A process is said to be “out of control” when:
A. 7 consecutive points lie on one side of mean
B. Data are symmetrically distributed
C. No points cross control limits
D. Mean remains constant
Answer: A. 7 consecutive points lie on one side of mean


Q63. Which control chart is used for monitoring defect count per unit?
A. P-chart
B. U-chart
C. C-chart
D. X-bar chart
Answer: C. C-chart


Q64. A P-chart monitors:
A. Continuous measurements
B. Proportion of defectives
C. Average range
D. Customer satisfaction
Answer: B. Proportion of defectives


Q65. The U-chart is appropriate when:
A. Sample sizes are constant
B. Defects per unit vary
C. Data are continuous
D. Process mean is zero
Answer: B. Defects per unit vary


Q66. Which control chart is used for variable data (e.g., time, weight, temperature)?
A. NP-chart
B. R-chart
C. X-bar chart
D. Both B and C
Answer: D. Both B and C


Q67. In SPC, the primary purpose of a control chart is to:
A. Eliminate all variation
B. Detect signals of assignable causes
C. Maintain constant output
D. Measure profitability
Answer: B. Detect signals of assignable causes


Q68. Which is NOT an assumption for using control charts?
A. Data are collected in rational subgroups
B. Process is consistent over time
C. Data come from a stable process
D. Data can be randomly collected without structure
Answer: D. Data can be randomly collected without structure


Q69. A “run” in SPC refers to:
A. Consecutive points on one side of the mean
B. A single outlier
C. Constant standard deviation
D. Decreasing Cp
Answer: A. Consecutive points on one side of the mean


Q70. A process with Cp = 1.0 and Cpk = 0.3 is:
A. Capable and centered
B. Not centered and poorly capable
C. Highly capable
D. Overperforming
Answer: B. Not centered and poorly capable


Q71. Cp = 1.67 generally corresponds to which Sigma level?
A. 3 Sigma
B. 5 Sigma
C. 4.5 Sigma
D. 6 Sigma
Answer: C. 4.5 Sigma


Q72. In service industries, the Analyze phase often focuses on:
A. Machine calibration
B. Human and procedural root causes
C. Material defect tracking
D. Supplier variation
Answer: B. Human and procedural root causes


Q73. Which Six Sigma tool is best for visualizing customer wait times distribution?
A. Pareto chart
B. Histogram
C. Scatter plot
D. Fishbone diagram
Answer: B. Histogram


Q74. When two continuous variables are plotted to examine their relationship, we use:
A. Scatter plot
B. Bar chart
C. Pareto chart
D. U-chart
Answer: A. Scatter plot


Q75. A high positive correlation coefficient (r = 0.9) indicates:
A. Strong direct relationship
B. Weak relationship
C. No relationship
D. Negative relationship
Answer: A. Strong direct relationship


Q76. In the Malgudi Hospital case, a histogram showing right-skewed data implies:
A. Registration times are consistent
B. Most registrations are faster than average
C. Most registrations are slower than average
D. Normal distribution
Answer: C. Most registrations are slower than average


Q77. The main objective of root cause validation is to:
A. Quantify the root cause
B. Verify that the suspected X truly impacts Y
C. Compare customer feedback
D. Test multiple causes simultaneously
Answer: B. Verify that the suspected X truly impacts Y


Q78. Which is the best approach before moving to the Improve phase?
A. Validate X–Y relationships statistically
B. Brainstorm more ideas
C. Collect more data without analysis
D. Skip validation for time saving
Answer: A. Validate X–Y relationships statistically


Q79. When the process mean shifts by +1.5σ, what happens to defect rate?
A. It increases from 0.002 ppm to 3.4 ppm
B. It decreases to zero
C. It doubles
D. It becomes unpredictable
Answer: A. It increases from 0.002 ppm to 3.4 ppm


Q80. Control limits are generally placed at:
A. ±1σ
B. ±2σ
C. ±3σ
D. ±6σ
Answer: C. ±3σ


Q81. Which term best describes “Voice of the Customer”?
A. Specification limits
B. Control limits
C. Average range
D. Sigma value
Answer: A. Specification limits


Q82. “Voice of the Process” corresponds to:
A. Control limits
B. Customer complaint data
C. Specification range
D. Target mean
Answer: A. Control limits


Q83. The intersection between VOC and VOP defines:
A. Process capability
B. Financial efficiency
C. Customer satisfaction index
D. Supplier rating
Answer: A. Process capability


Q84. If a process has Cpk < 1.0, it means:
A. Process meets specs comfortably
B. Process is barely meeting or failing specs
C. Process is overperforming
D. No defects present
Answer: B. Process is barely meeting or failing specs


Q85. A Cp > 1 and Cpk < 1 indicates:
A. Process spread is good, but mean is off-center
B. Process is incapable
C. Process is centered and capable
D. Zero variation
Answer: A. Process spread is good, but mean is off-center


Q86. The term DPMO stands for:
A. Defects per Million Operations
B. Defects per Million Opportunities
C. Defects per Monthly Output
D. Deviations per Mean Opportunity
Answer: B. Defects per Million Opportunities


Q87. The Analyze phase primarily seeks to convert:
A. Symptom data into verified root causes
B. Causes into action plans
C. Control limits into tolerances
D. Outputs into specifications
Answer: A. Symptom data into verified root causes


Q88. The “Y = f(X)” concept implies:
A. Output depends on multiple input factors
B. Process depends on customer behavior
C. Output is independent of inputs
D. Random outcomes only
Answer: A. Output depends on multiple input factors


Q89. In Lean Six Sigma, which approach is often integrated into Analyze phase?
A. 5S workplace management
B. Kanban visualization
C. Value stream mapping
D. Benchmarking
Answer: C. Value stream mapping


Q90. The measure of dispersion around the process mean is:
A. Range
B. Mean
C. Sigma (standard deviation)
D. Cp value
Answer: C. Sigma (standard deviation)


Q91. In hypothesis testing, “rejecting the null” means:
A. There is no significant impact
B. There is a statistically significant impact
C. Data is random
D. Process is under control
Answer: B. There is a statistically significant impact


Q92. The Malgudi Hospital’s registration process violated CTQ because:
A. Control limits were too tight
B. Average time exceeded the USL
C. Too many assignable causes
D. Poor data collection
Answer: B. Average time exceeded the USL


Q93. The first step after defining the problem in Analyze phase is:
A. Develop regression model
B. Brainstorm potential causes
C. Validate customer satisfaction
D. Draw Pareto chart
Answer: B. Brainstorm potential causes


Q94. Which of the following is an example of an assignable cause?
A. Random fluctuations
B. Machine breakdown
C. Natural material variation
D. Stable operator speed
Answer: B. Machine breakdown


Q95. When histogram bars touch each other, it implies:
A. Categorical data
B. Continuous data
C. Poor data quality
D. Discrete defects
Answer: B. Continuous data


Q96. The area under the normal curve between ±3σ covers:
A. 99.73% of data
B. 95.45% of data
C. 68.27% of data
D. 100% of data
Answer: A. 99.73% of data


Q97. Which is the correct hierarchy in Six Sigma project flow?
A. Define → Measure → Analyze → Improve → Control
B. Measure → Analyze → Control → Define → Improve
C. Analyze → Define → Measure → Control → Improve
D. Control → Measure → Improve → Define → Analyze
Answer: A. Define → Measure → Analyze → Improve → Control


Q98. The “3.4 DPMO” benchmark assumes:
A. 1.5σ mean shift
B. 0.5σ shift
C. No shift
D. Constant mean
Answer: A. 1.5σ mean shift


Q99. Which of the following tools is NOT used in the Analyze phase?
A. Fishbone diagram
B. Pareto chart
C. Hypothesis test
D. Control plan
Answer: D. Control plan


Q100. A normal distribution is symmetric around:
A. Mode
B. Median
C. Mean
D. All of the above
Answer: D. All of the above


Q101. Process capability indices ($C_p$ and $C_{pk}$) are valid only when:
A. The process is in control
B. The process is unstable
C. The process has defects
D. Data are non-normal
Answer: A. The process is in control


Q102. The symbol μ represents:
A. Sample mean
B. Population mean
C. Standard deviation
D. Process range
Answer: B. Population mean


Q103. The Analyze phase helps in distinguishing:
A. Common causes from special causes
B. Defects from reworks
C. Inputs from outputs
D. Customers from suppliers
Answer: A. Common causes from special causes


Q104. The overall average in an X-bar chart is denoted as:
A. $\bar{R}$
B. $\bar{\bar{X}}$
C. μ
D. σ
Answer: B. $\bar{\bar{X}}$


Q105. The main statistical distribution assumed in Six Sigma is:
A. Binomial
B. Normal
C. Poisson
D. Exponential
Answer: B. Normal


Q106. Process capability focuses on the relationship between:
A. Voice of the Process and Voice of the Customer
B. Control limits and sample size
C. Mean and standard deviation
D. Sigma and variance
Answer: A. Voice of the Process and Voice of the Customer


Q107. A process with Cp < 1 means:
A. Process spread is wider than specification limits
B. Process spread fits within specification limits
C. Process is capable
D. Process mean is ideal
Answer: A. Process spread is wider than specification limits


Q108. Which phase validates whether improvement efforts were successful?
A. Define
B. Analyze
C. Improve
D. Control
Answer: D. Control


Q109. The relationship Y = f(X) implies that:
A. Controlling Xs will improve Y
B. Y influences X
C. Y is random
D. X and Y are unrelated
Answer: A. Controlling Xs will improve Y


Q110. The ultimate goal of Six Sigma projects is to:
A. Optimize profitability through process excellence
B. Eliminate staff errors
C. Increase data collection frequency
D. Reduce management oversight
Answer: A. Optimize profitability through process excellence

Six Sigma MCQ, Six Sigma quiz with answers, process capability Cp Cpk, DMAIC phases questions, hypothesis testing in Six Sigma, analyze phase tools, SPC charts MCQ, Lean Six Sigma test, Cp Cpk examples, control chart interpretation

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